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Wednesday 29 February 2012

Current Affaires Jan 2012/ GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS- 37


1) This agency issued guidelines on distance marketing of products on 6 April 2011 to protect the interest of people who buy policies over phone or Internet. Identify the agency.
a. SEBI, b. IRDA, c. TRAI, d. DoT


2) In India’s first sale of rupee perpetual bonds by a non-finance company Rs 1500 crore ($332 million) was raised. Name the non-finance company.

a. Tata Steel, b. Pantallons Retail, c. RIL, d. Maruti Suzuki

3) Which of the following Indian cricket players took the highest number of wickets in the recently concluded ICC World Cup 2011 along with Pakistan’s Shahid Afridi?

a. Yuvraj Singh, b. Zaheer Khan, c. Munaf Patel, d. Harbhajan Singh

4) Union Sports Ministry on 6 April 2011 formed a committee to fine-tune the draft National Sports Development Bill. Who is heading the committee?

a. Justice Mukul Mudgal, b. Justice Tej Pratap Singh Mann,
c. Justice Gurdev Singh, d. Justice Jaswant Singh Phogat

5) Name the cricketer who beat Michael Clarke by a comfortable 15-vote margin to bag the Allan Border Medal besides being named Australia’s ODI Player of the Year in Feb 2010?

a. Shane Watson , b. Simon Katich, c. Mitchell Johnson, d. Sachin Tendulkar

6) Record food grain production helped to reduce food inflation to a four month low for the week ending 26 March 2011. What was the inflation percentage for the week?

a. 9.18%, b. 9.25%, c. 9.21%, d. 9.36%

7) Praveen Kumar Tripathi took over as the Chief Secretary of which of the following governments on 4 April 2011?

a.
Delhi Government, b. Haryana Government
c. Uttar Pradesh
Government, d. Uttarakhand Government

8) The Union Government gifted a Kendriya Vidyalaya to a nondescript village Indrapura to which of the following Indian states?

a. Bihar, b. Odisha, c. Rajasthan, d. Madhya Pradesh

9) The Supreme Court on 5 April 2011 passed an order to lift iron export ban imposed by which of the following Indian states on 26 July 2010 and also ordered it to implement the new rules for regulating iron ore mining and transportation?

a. Tamil Nadu, b. Andhra Pradesh, c. Karnataka, d. Odisha

10) To enhance credit worthiness of economically weaker sections and LIG households, a Mortgage Risk Guarantee Fund was announced to be created under which of the following scheme or Yojana?

a. Rajiv Awas Yojana, b. Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
c. Indira Awas Yojana, d. Mahatama Gandhi NREGA

11) Which agency issued guidelines on distance marketing of products on 6 April 2011 to protect the interest of people who buy policies over phone or Internet?

a. SEBI, b. IRDA, c. TRAI, d. DoT

12) Buyer's Credit was launched by the Commerce and Industry Minister, Anand Sharma, on 6 April 2011 to boost project exports from India. Under which of the following was Buyer’s Credit launched?

a. National Export Insurance Account, b. Export-Import Bank of India
c. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India, d. Reserve Bank of India

13) Read the two statements mentioned with regard to the budgetary allocations for addressing environmental concerns.

1. The budget proposed that the solar lantern used in far-flung villages will attract no duty from 10 per cent charged earlier.
2. To provide green and clean transportation for the masses, National Mission for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles will be launched in the year 2011 in collaboration with all stakeholders. Which of them is true?
a. Only 1, b. Only 2, c. Both 1 & 2, d. None of the above

14) 21 year old Marjan Kalhor is the first Iranian woman to have entered an Olympic event. She is a participant in the 2010 Winter Olympics that began in Vancouver on 12 Feb 2010. Which sport is she associated with?

a. Ski, b. Shot put, c. Cycling, d. Bobsleigh

15) With his victory in the men’s large hill ski jump on 20 Feb 2010 at the Vancouver Olympics, he became the first person to win four individual gold ski jumping medals. Name this sportsperson.

a. Simon Ammann (Switzerland), b. Ahonen Janne (Finland)
c. Alexander Nicholas (USA), d. Bardal Anders (Norway)

16) The Indian Government in April 2011 issued a notice to which of the following companies to terminate licences for Kerala, West Bengal and Assam for delay in roll- out of services in these three circles?

a. Sistema Shyam Teleservices, b. Tata Teleservices, c. Reliance, d. BSNL

17) Which Italian luxury sports car makers on 6 April 2011 announced its entry into the Indian market where it will sell its high-performance cars priced between Rs1.20 crore and Rs1.43 crore?

a. Maserati, b. Bentley, c. Aston Martin, d. Maybach

18) Who did HDFC Bank, the country's second-largest private sector lender appoint in March 2011 to head its investment banking division?

a. Rakesh Singh , b. Charul Madan, c. Gaurav Khungar, d. Atul Singh

19) Gangaur, a festival which marks the union of Lord Shiva and his consort, Goddess Parvati is celebrated for 18 days from the day after Holi in which of the following Indian states?

a. Rajasthan, b. Karnataka, c. Tamil Nadu, d. Uttaranchal

20) Read the following statements with regard to the allocation in the Educational sector as proposed by Union Budget 2011-12.

1.
For Sarva Siksha Abhiyan the allocation was increased by 40 percent to 21000 crore rupees.
2.
All institutions of higher learning will be connected through optical fibers by March 2012.
3.
500 crore rupees was proposed to be provided for national skill development fund.
4.
For the needy scheduled castes ad scheduled tribe candidates studying in class-IX and Xth pre-matric scholarship scheme was proposed to be introduced. Which of the above mentioned statements is not true?
a. 1 , b. 2 , c. 3 & 4, d. 4

21) Scientists recently developed a computer that could be controlled by the power of thought. It would help people unable to speak or move. What is the name of the technology which they used to develop this kind of computer?

a. electrocortiography, b. symbian C++, c. Java, d. flash lite

22) Which of the following companies bought the Pringles brand from Procter & Gamble Co for $1.5 billion?

a. Diamond Foods Inc, b. PepsiCo's Frito-Lay, c. Emerald Nuts, d. Kettle Potato Chips

23) Online marketplace eBay India, in association with leading apparel brand Reebok auctioned a bat autographed by Indian cricketer Mahendra Singh Dhoni. The proceeds of the auction will go to which of the following NGOs?

a. Oxfem, b. CRY, c. All Bengal Women’s Union, d. UNEM

24) Which Indian hockey player was in April 2011 named captain of the Indian Hockey team the upcoming Sultan Azlan Shah Cup scheduled to be played in Malaysia from 5-15 May 2011?

a. Arjun Halappa , b. Rajpal Singh, c. Bharat Kumar Chetri, d. Mohd. Amir Khan

25) Under the Godfrey Phillips Zonal Bravery Awards given away by the former ruler of Jodhpur, Gaj Singh in Jaipur on 5 April 2011, which of the following NGOs was honoured with the Amodhini Award of Rs.1 lakh?

a. Udyogini, b. Charities Aid Foundation, c. CRY, d. Akhil Bharatiya Vanavasi Kalyan Ashram

26) The Basic Customs Duty exemption was proposed to be extended to which of the following sectors?

a. art and antiquities for exhibition or display in private art galleries
b. Cinematographic film, factory-built ambulances
c. syringes and needles , d. agricultural machinery

27) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of Japan. Where is the Pacific Tsunami Warning System headquartered? 

a. Hawai, b. Tokyo, c. Manila, d. Jakarta

28) Which of the following companies announced on 6 April 2011 that it won contract to provide broadband internet connectivity to Indian Railways through state-run RailTel Corp of India Ltd?

a. DEL, b. IBM, c. Infosys, d. HCL Infosystems

29) Which super luxury carmaker on 7 April 2011 unveiled Continental GT sedan in India?

a. Ferrari, b. Bentley, c. Maybach, d. Maserati

30) What amount of money was allocated for Bharat Nirman?

a. 1000 crore, b. 58000 crore, c. 55438 crore, d. 14362 crore

31) Who defeated Tamarine Tanasugarn on 15 Feb 2010 to retain the Pattaya Open title?

a. Vera Zvonareva of Russia, b. Sabine Lisicki of Germany,
c. Ayumi Morita of Japan, d. Kimiko Date Krumm of Japan

32) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of japan. What are the possible factors which can cause Tsunami?

i)An Earthquake, ii) A landslide
iii) A volcanic eruption or explosion, iv) Impact by a meteorite
Please choose the right option
a. i, ii, iii and iv, b. i and ii only, c. ii and iii only, d. i and iv only

33) Which of the following Indian cricket is the most heavily insured player for the forthcoming Indian Premier League (IPL) 4 T-20 tournament which begins on 8 April 2011?

a. Sachin Tendulkar, b. Yuvraj Singh, c. M S Dhoni, d. Virender Sehwag

34) The Union Budget for 2011-12 proposed lowering of qualifying age for tax relief for senior citizens from 65 years to _?

a. 55, b. 58, c. 60, d. 62

35) Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee proposed to increase the Income Tax Exemption Limit for individual tax payers from 1 lakh 60 to _?

a. 1 lakh 80 thousand, b. 1 lakh 90 thousand, c. 2 lakh, d. 2 lakh 20 thousand

36) Noted Social worker Anna Hazare on 5 April 2011 started his hunger strike  at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi to protest against the reported delay in bringing in which of the following bills to effectively deal with corruption?

a. Lokpal Bill , b. The Competition (Amendment) Bill
c. The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Bill, d. The Appropriation (No.3 ) Bill

37) Who became the world number one badminton player?

a. Saina Nehwal, b. Wang Xin, c. Sania Mirza, d. Wang Shixian

38) When is the National Youth Day observed?

a. January 14, b. February 14, c. August 31, d. January 12

39) What is Tejas?

a. Spacecraft, b. Missile, c. Submarine, d. Light combat aircraft

40) Who is the Chairperson of the Central Board Film Certification?

a. Sharmila Tagore, b. Karan Johar, c. Nafisa Ali, d. Om Puri, e. None of these

41) Ali Akbar Salehi is the foreign minister of

a. Israel, b. Iran, c. Afghanistan, d. Indonesia

42) Who is the new chief of Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)?

a. AP Singh, b. Arun Shourie, c. Sanjeev Tripathi, d. BK Gupta

43)
According to an extensive genetic study on modern humans, two conclusions were drawn out.
i)
There is an enormous amount of diversity in the African hunter-gatherer populations.
ii)
The genetic diversity among 27 present-day African populations originated in southern Africa and progressed to northern Africa.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Both i and ii, b. Neither I and ii, c. Only i, d. Only ii

44)
Which one of the following Indian states recently released a Braille version of the RTI (Right to Information) Act and its rules for the benefit of visually challenged?
a. Gujarat, b. Bihar, c. Haryana, d. Madhya Pradesh

45)
Roger Federer won his fourth Australian Open Tennis Championship and 16th Grand Slam on 31 Jan 2010. Who did he defeat in the final of the Australian Open 2010?
a. Rafael Nadal, b. Andy Murray, c. Fred Perry, d. Rod Laver

46) Which of the following Bollywood Actress won the Best Actress trophy at the 13th London Asian Film Festival for her performance in Onir’s I AM?

a. Nandita Das, b. Juhi Chawla, c. Tabu, d. Konkona Sen Sharma

47) In tiger census 2010, 

i)
Pugmarks were used as the only indicator of tiger numbers.
ii)
An advanced Scientific process was adopted which included video trapping and use of satellite data. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Choose the right option:

a. Only i is incorrect, b. Only ii is incorrect, c. Both i and ii are incorrect
d. Both i and ii are not incorrect

48)
India defeated Pakistan by 29 runs in the semi finals of the ICC World Cup 2011 played at Mohali. Who was declared man of the match of the high powered game?
a. Saeed Ajmal, b. Sachin Tendulkar, c. Munaf Patel, d. Wahab Riaz

49)
Which of the following bodies put off indefinitely the new rules governing unwanted telemarketing calls which were supposed to be implemented from 21 March 2011?
a. Department of Telecommunication (DoT), b. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
c. Indian Ministry of communication & Technology, d. HRD Ministry

50)
The Indian government in March 2011 conferred the Miniratna status on which of the following PSUs?
a. National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)
b. Air India Charters Ltd, c. Cement Corporation of India
d. HMT Machine Tools Ltd
Answers: 
1) B 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) A 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) A

State bank of India 9500 Clerks Recruitment 2012

SBI Has announced Recruitment of Clerks in Assistants and Stenographers cadre by revising its earlier advertisement that announced 3100 posts in OBC/SC/ST and North - East Region. Now the revision is made to include candidates from all the categories and across the country. Written exam dates are also revised from Mar 18 to May 27 and June 3.
State Bank of India is the largest public sector Bank in India with Headquarters in Mumbai. SBI now has vast network of over 16000 branches across india and also has numerous overseas offices. State Bank of India Invites applications for recruitment of Clerks in Assistants and Stenographers cadre.

Vacancies and Payscale


  • Clerks - Assistants - 8500 Posts ( Inclusive of 3100 vacancies already advertised earlier Here).
  • Clerks - Stenographers (English) - 900, Hindi - 100
  • Payscale :- Rs. 7200 - 19300 (Approx Rs. 14,177/Month)
(See Advertisement for more detailed info about vacancies and their distribution..)

Important Dates

Online Registration :- Mar 05 to 26, 2012,
Payment of fees :- Mar 7 to 31, 2012
Written Test Date :- 27.05.2012 and 03.06.2012 (May change as decided by SBI Bank)

Eligibility Criteria

  • To be between 18-28 yrs of age as on 01.12.2011,
  • Should have passed intermediate with at least 60% marks or Diploma (After 10th) (55% For SC/ST/EXS/PWD)
    OR,
    Pass in degree as on Dec 1, 2011 (No percentage Criteria).
  • Fluency in English and local language is Required and Basic Knowledge in computers (MS Office Etc. ) is preferred.
  • Relaxation in Upper age Limit :-
    • For SC/ST :- 5 Years Relaxation,
    • For OBC :- 3 Years Relaxation,
    • For PWD (GEN) :- 10 Years Relaxation,
    • For PWD (SC/ST) :- 15 Years Relaxation,
    • For PWD (OBC) :- 13 Years Relaxation,

Selection Procedure

Selection to be made on the basis of performance in written test and Interview. Written test will be objective type having questions from General Awareness, General English, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Marketing
Aptitude / Computer Knowledge
.
For those applying for stenographer posts :- They will be called for a skill test in stenography after qualifying the written test. In that skill test, The candidate will be given one dictation for 10 minutes in English/Hindi at the speed
of 100 w.p.m. The matter will have to be transcribed on computer in 40 minutes in case of English Stenography and in 55 minutes in case of Hindi Stenography. Candidate should score min 50% marks to qualify this test.
There will be negative marking of 1/4th of the total marks for any question.
Bank will decide Passing marks and depending on the vacancies (In the ratio of 1:3), candidates will be considered for Interview process.
For any Further details about selection Procedure, Please see State Bank of India Clerks Recruitment 2012 Advertisement

Application Procedure

The fee for this application is Rs. 50 for SC/ST/PWD/EXS in Each case while for Others, its Rs. 350 (Assistants Only), Rs. 500 (Assistants and Stenographers (Hindi/English)) Rs. 600 (Assistants and Stenographers (Hindi and English Both)). Please note that Payment is to made After Applying Online.  
To apply, you have to get your photograph and signature scanned and Apply Online via SBI Website Link (To be activated on Mar 5). Take print out of the system generated Fee payment challan and note the Registration Number and password.
The payment of fees can be done using the generated payment challan from second day of application and for next three working days only. The registration is confirmed only after fee is paid.
On confirmation of registration, you will receive and SMS/Email within 2 working days stating the same.
The call Letters for written exam can be downloaded from May 12, 2012 from SBI bank website.

Apply Online Link to be activated on Mar 5, 2012.

Monday 27 February 2012

Syndicate Bank shortlists around 10000 for 1750 PO Posts

Syndicate Bank has issued list of Shortlisted candidates for Interview in continuation of its recruitment of 1750 PO Posts for which advertisement was issued in Jan 2012. The bank has shortlisted Around 10000 candidates for Interview for 1750 PO Posts.
The applications were invited from candidates successful in IBPS CWE PO Exam in Sep 2011. Candidates qualifying the threshold asked by the bank applied for this and now bank has shortlisted candidates with significantly high cut-offs. Below is the list of threshold set by the bank for shortlisting candidates for Interview.
  • General Category - 164 Marks
  • OBC Category - 160 Marks
  • SC Category - 150 Marks
  • ST Category - 139 Marks
  • PWD Category (HI - 125 Marks, OH - 138 Marks, VI - 125 Marks)
Interviews will be conducted from Mar 15 to 26, 2012. An E-mail and SMS will also be received by the shortlisted candidates regarding the further process. The list of shortlisted candidates can be seen here.

To see other related info and list of required documents, follow official announcement in the title "Recruitment Of Probationary Officers 2011-12".

The scene is clear, High Scorers (TWS - Above 150) will get significant chances to become officers or clerks in Banks. IBPS Director has cleared things by saying that competition is tough and they at IBPS are trying to be as transparent as possible with the candidates and there motto is not to make money from candidates but to provide an efficient solution for Banking personnel recruitment over the years to come!!

He added that vacancies will increase with each year due to increasing branches and retirements. So, be patient and prepare in right direction !!

SSC CPO Sub Inspector General Awareness Exam Practice Paper - 33


GENERAL AWARENESS
1. ‘India Today’ is—(A) A staggering mass of problems
(B) Former British India minus Pakistan and Bangladesh
(C) A News magazine mainly devoted to current affairs
(D) The Union of India, a member of United Nations
Ans : (C)
2. The book ‘It was Five Past Midnight’ is on—(A) Bhuj Earthquake
(B) Orissa Floods
(C) Andhra Cyclone
(D) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
Ans : (D)
3. Teen Bigha Corridor links—(A) India and Pakistan
(B) India and China
(C) Bangladesh and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
Ans : (D)
4. What is the field in which outstanding work may be recognized with the award of Pulitzer Prize ?(A) Science and Technology
(B) Literature and Journalism
(C) International Understanding
(D) Environmental Studies
Ans : (B)
5. Vijay Stambha at Chittor was built by—(A) Maharana Pratap
(B) Rana Sangram Singh
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Rana Ratan Singh
Ans : (C)
6. The device used to change the speed of an electric fan is—(A) Amplifier
(B) Regulator
(C) Switch
(D) Rectifier
Ans : (B)
7. Namdhapa National Park is in—(A) Mizoram
(B) Manipur
(C) Tripura
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans : (D)
8. Which scripture was called his ‘mother’ by Gandhiji ?(A) Ramayana
(B) The New Testament
(C) Bhagwat Gita
(D) The Holy Quran
Ans : (C)
9. On which of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located ?(A) Alaknanda
(B) Mandakini
(C) Dhauli Ganga
(D) Bhagirathi
Ans : (D)
10. Nobel Prize winning Indian Amartya Sen is known for his work in which area ?(A) Physics
(B) Environmental Protection
(C) Chemistry
(D) Economics
Ans : (D)
11. Who has been crowned Miss Universe, 2008 ?(A) Miss Japan
(B) Miss Venezuela
(C) Miss Philippines
(D) Miss Malaysia
Ans : (B)
12. Wholesale price based inflation rate in India reached its highest level in 13 years on 27th July, 2008. It was—(A) 11•75 per cent
(B) 11•85 per cent
(C) 12•00 per cent
(D) 12•05 per cent
Ans : (D)
13. The French Open, 2009 Men’s Singles was won by—(A) Roger Federer
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Bob Bryan
(D) Katarina Srebotnik
Ans : (A)
14. The venue of the Energy Summit, 2008 was—(A) Jeddah
(B) Tehran
(C) Riyadh
(D) Tripoli
Ans : (A)
15. CTBT stands for—(A) Continued Test Ban Treaty
(B) Continued Test Based Treatments
(C) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(D) Commercial Test Based Tariff
Ans : (C)
16. Asia Cup, 2008 final was played between—(A) India and Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan and India
(C) Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
Ans : (A)
17. For which one of the following, M. S. Dhoni was chosen for the year 2007 ?(A) Arjun Award
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
18. Full form of MCA is—(A) Ministry of Company Affairs
(B) Master of Computer Application
(C) Member Chartered Accountant
(D) Master of Commerce and Arts
Ans : (B)
19. China has hosted the—(A) XXIX Olympic Games
(B) XXVIII Olympic Games
(C) XXVII Olympic Games
(D) XXX Olympic Games
Ans : (A)
20. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by—(A) Edward Stone
(B) Le Corbusier
(C) Edwin Lutyens
(D) Tarun Dutt
Ans : (C)
21. ‘The Quit India Movement’ was launched in 1942 in the month of—(A) January
(B) March
(C) August
(D) December
Ans : (C)
22. Match the following—
Column-I
(A) Keshab Sen
(b) Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Atmaram Pandurang
(d) Syed Ahmad Khan
Column-II
1. Prarthana Samaj
2. Brahmo Samaj
3. Aligarh Movement
4. Arya Samaj
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : (C)
23. Who was the first English President of the Indian National Congress ?(A) George Yule
(B) William Wedderburn
(C) A. O. Hume
(D) Henry Cotton
Ans : (A)
24. Which one of the following personalities is known as ‘Grand Old Man of India’ ?(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Motilal Nehru
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Ans : (B)
25. Who wrote Akbarnama ?(A) Akbar
(B) Birbal
(C) Abul Fazal
(D) Bhagavan Das
Ans : (C)
26. The pledge for ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was taken at the Congress Session of—(A) Calcutta
(B) Lahore
(C) Allahabad
(D) Madras
Ans : (B)
27. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India ?(A) 1950 A.D.
(B) 1945 A.D.
(C) 1959 A.D.
(D) 1962 A.D.
Ans : (C)
28. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms ?(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Mr. R. Venkataraman
(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(D) Mr. V. V. Giri
Ans : (A)
29. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words—‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ in the Preamble ?(A) 28th
(B) 40th
(C) 42nd
(D) 52nd
Ans : (C)
30. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice President at the same time, the office is held temporarily by—(A) A person nominated by both the Houses of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) The Chief Justice of India
Ans : (D)
31. The Constitution of India came into force on—(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 26 January, 1952
(C) 15 August, 1948
(D) 26 November, 1949
Ans : (A)
32. Who was the first Woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following ?(A) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(D) Mrs. Vijay Laxmi Pandit
Ans : (A)
33. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinises the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is—(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Select Committee
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
34. Fog is an example of—(A) Gas dispersed in gas
(B) Liquid dispersed in gas
(C) Solid dispersed in gas
(D) Solid dispersed in liquid
Ans : (B)
35. Which from the following is a landlocked sea ?(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea
Ans : (D)
36. Match the following—
Sea Ports
(A) Bhatkal
(b) Alleppey
(c) Kakinada
(d) Tuticorin
States
1. Kerala
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (C)
37. Which one of the following represent the lines joining the places of equal rainfall ?(A) Isohypses
(B) Isohalines
(C) Isobars
(D) Isohyets
Ans : (D)
38. Equator represents—(A) Line joining North and South poles
(B) Imaginary line passing round the Earth midway between North & South poles
(C) A belt (ring) around the planet Saturn
(D) Axis of rotation of Earth
Ans : (B)
39. Global warming is expected to result in—(A) Increase in level of sea
(B) Change in crop pattern
(C) Change in coast line
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
40. Earth Summit (Save Earth) was sponsored by—(A) UNESCO
(B) UNCED
(C) WHO
(D) UNICEF
Ans : (B)
41. If two commodities are complements, then their cross-price elasticity is—(A) Zero
(B) Positive
(C) Negative
(D) Imaginary number
Ans : (C)
42. Opportunity cost of production of a commodity is—(A) The cost that the firm could have incurred when a different technique was adopted
(B) The cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production
(C) The actual cost incurred
(D) The next best alternative output sacrificed
Ans : (D)
43. Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period is referred to as—(A) Economic rent
(B) Net rent
(C) Quasi-rent
(D) Super-normal rent
Ans : (C)
44. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission ?(A) Minister for Planning & Development
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Minister for Rural & Community Development
Ans : (C)
45. Which from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up ?(A) Savings increases
(B) Lending decreases
(C) Cost of production increases
(D) Return on capital increases
Ans : (D)
46. Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income ?(A) Value Added Method
(B) Income Method
(C) Investment Method
(D) Expenditure Method
Ans : (C)
47. Labour Intensive Technique would get chosen in a—(A) Labour Surplus Economy
(B) Capital Surplus Economy
(C) Developed Economy
(D) Developing Economy
Ans : (A)
48. Which one of the following would not constitute an economic activity ?(A) A teacher teaching students in his class
(B) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) A teacher teaching his own daughter at home
(D) A teacher providing consultancy services from his residence
Ans : (C)
49. The Finance Commission—(A) Draws up Five Year Plans
(B) Formulates Monetary Policy
(C) Recommends pay revision of Central Government Employees
(D) Adjudicates on the sharing of resources between Centre and the States
Ans : (D)
50. Net National Product of a country is—(A) GDP minus depreciation allowances
(B) GDP plus net income from abroad
(C) GNP minus net income from abroad
(D) GNP minus depreciation allowances
Ans : (D)
51. Jaundice is caused due to the infection of—(A) Brain
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Spleen
Ans : (B)
52. The average heart beat rate per minute in a normal person is—(A) 82
(B) 92
(C) 72
(D) 98
Ans : (C)
53. EEG records the activity of—(A) Heart
(B) Lungs
(C) Brain
(D) Muscles
Ans : (C)
54. The colour of cow’s milk is slight yellow due to the presence of—(A) Xanthophyll
(B) Riboflavin
(C) Ribulose
(D) Carotene
Ans : (D)
55. Which one of these is a communicat disease ?(A) Diabetes
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Arthritis
(D) Cancer
Ans : (B)
56. The concertration of which of following decreases in anaemia ?(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Collagen
(C) Hyoglobin
(D) Myosin
Ans : (A)
57. Which of the following diseases usually spreads through air ?(A) Plague
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Cholera
Ans : (A)
58. Cereals are a rich source of—(A) Starch
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)
59. Aspirin is common name of—(A) Salicylic Acid
(B) Salicylate
(C) Methyl Salicylate
(D) Acetyl Salicylic Acid
Ans : (D)
60. Small Pox is caused by—(A) Rubeola Virus
(B) Variola Virus
(C) Varicella
(D) Myxovirus
Ans : (B)
61. Carbon monoxide is an inflammable gas. Which one of the following is also inflammable ?(A) Helium
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen
Ans : (D)
62. Aerobic respiration process requires—(A) Heat
(B) Water
(C) Oxygen
(D) Sunlight
Ans : (C)
63. Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen ?(A) Potassium
(B) Cadmium
(C) Sodium
(D) Lithium
Ans : (B)
64. Ozone consists of—(A) Oxygen only
(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen and Carbon
(D) Oxygen and Carbon
Ans : (A)
65. Which of the following liquids has the least density ?(A) Fresh water
(B) Salt water
(C) Petrol
(D) Mercury
Ans : (C)
66. Which of the following principle is used to produce ‘low-temperatures’ ?(A) Super conductivity
(B) Joule-Kelvin effect
(C) Thermo-electric effect
(D) Adiabatic demagnetization
Ans : (D)
67. A photo-electric cell converts—(A) Mechanical energy to electric energy
(B) Heat energy to mechanical energy
(C) Light energy to chemical energy
(D) Light energy to electrical energy
Ans : (D)
68. Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building—(A) Smaller stone reaches the ground earlier
(B) Larger stone reaches the ground earlier
(C) Both the stones reach the ground at the same time
(D) Depends on the composition of the stone
Ans : (C)
69. Pulsars are—(A) Stars moving towards the Earth
(B) Stars moving away from Earth
(C) Rapidly spinning stars
(D) High temperature stars
Ans : (C)
70. Biggest planet of solar system is—(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Saturn
(D) Jupiter
Ans : (D)
71. The ‘National School of Drama’ is situated in which of the following cities ?(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Bhopal
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (B)
72. When was our National Anthem first sung and where ?(A) 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad
(B) 24th January, 1950 in Delhi
(C) 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta
(D) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta
Ans : (D)
73. The ozone hole that has been detected lies in the atmosphere above—(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Antarctica
(C) India
(D) Alaska
Ans : (B)
74. Brain drain—(A) Is a disease
(B) Refers to dropouts from educational and technical institutions
(C) Is fruitless expenditure of scientific and industrial research
(D) Refers to emigration of skilled persons
Ans : (D)
75. How many spokes are there in the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag ?(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 18
(D) 14
Ans : (B)
 

District Co Operative Bank Uttrakhand English Practice Paper 50


Pls visit to the VIGYAAPANS also............

Directions– (Q. 1-10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

In the modem times, few Indians stay put for a lifetime. They move from town to city and from city to suburb. They complete high school from a different state and ...(1)...college in a different one. They hop from a job in a particular region to a better job elsewhere. With each move, they make new friends, who become part of their ...(2)... lives at that time. For many of them, the summer is a special ...(3)... for new friendships. Today millions of Indians holiday abroad, and they go not only with an intent to see new ...(4)... but ...(5)... with the ...(6)... of meeting new people. No one really expects a casual ...(7)... to produce a close friend. But ...( 8) ...the beginning of a ...(9)... association is ...(10)…..

1. (A) like, (B) go, (C) move , (D) study, (E) attend,
Ans : (E)

2. (A) usual , (B) daily, (C) common , (D) main, (E) society
Ans : (B)

3. (A) month , (B) seasonal, (C) era , (D) time, (E) week
Ans : (D)

4. (A) sights , (B) area, (C) place , (D) flowers, (E) palaces
Ans : (A)

5. (A) again , (B) aim , (C) also , (D) addition, (E) besides
Ans : (C)

6. (A) nope , (B) ideal, (C) expect , (D) visions, (E) ideas
Ans : (A)

7. (A) leave , (B) trip, (C) experience , (D) space, (E) holiday
Ans : (B)

8. (A) acceptably, (B) evidence, (C) surely, (D) immediately, (E) fastly
Ans : (C)

9. (A) lifelong , (B) imaginative, (C) closely , (D) friendship, (E) tourist
Ans : (A)

10. (A) accept , (B) thought, (C) planned , (D) plausibly, (E) possible
Ans : (E)

Directions– (Q. 11-20) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any .)

11. A great (A) / speaker can (B) / keep the audiencing (C) / spell bound. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

12. You must (A) / concentration on (B) / the work allotted (C) / to you. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

13. You can (A) / borrow this books (B) / if you promise (C) / to return them. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

14. We spent (A) / the entire (B) / evening listen (C) / to songs. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

15. The committee (A) / discussed many (B) / things in its (C) / annual meeting. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

16. I writing him (A) / a letter to (B) / congratulate him (C) / on his success. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)

17. Everybody knows (A) / regard the (B) / ill effects smoking has (C) / on health. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)

18. Someone hit (A) / myself as (B) / I came (C) / into the room. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

19. Somebody has (A) / broken the window (B) / by throwing (C) / many stone at it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

20. The picture (A) / is too heavy (B) / to be hang (C) / on the wall. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions– (Q. 21-25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper
sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below:
(1) The poor Iamb was very scared to die and decided to trick the wolf.
(2) When the wolf began to play, the shepherd and the dogs heard the sound of the flute, and they came to rescue the lamb.
(3) It continued by saying that it had heard the wolf play the flute and had liked it very much.
(4) The lamb requested the wolf to grant it a last wish.
(5) Once, a wolf carried off a baby lamb from its flock in order to eat it.
(6) The wolf was pleased and decided to grant the lamb its last wish.

21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence ?
(A) 5 , (B) 1, (C) 6 , (D) 4, (E) 2
Ans : (A)

22. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence ?
(A) 2 , (B) 1, (C) 4 , (D) 6, (E) 3
Ans : (C)

23. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence ?
(A) 1 , (B) 4, (C) 3 , (D) 5, (E) 2
Ans : (E)

24. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence ?
(A) 5 , (B) 2, (C) 4 , (D) 3, (E) 1
Ans : (E)

25. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence ?
(A) 1 , (B) 3, (C) 4 , (D) 2, (E) 6
Ans : (E)

Directions– (Q. 26-35) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may either be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., All Correct' as your answer.

26. He used (A) all his skills to calm the agitated (B) union leddar (C) and bring him to the negotiation (D) table. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

27. I had a toothache, (A) so I took an appointment (B) with a famous (C) dentistry. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

28. The city senter (A) is always (B) crowded (C) with tourists. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

29. You can borrow (A) this book (B) if you promise (C) to return (D) it. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

30. It isn't safe (A) to swim (B) in a weather (C) like these. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

31. Patiense (A) and humility (B) have unlimited (C) power. (D) All correct. (E)
Ans : (A)

32. The delicious (A) lunch at the hotel satiated (B) my hungry (C) and desire. (D) All correct. (E)
Ans : (C)

33. I don't have enough (A) money to be able to afford (B) an expansive (C) holiday. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

34. I expected (A) your house (B) to be very big, but it's not biggest (C) than mine. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

35. You can ask your unkle (A) for anything (B) you want (C) as your birthday present. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 36-50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once, there was a boy who was afraid of the dark. He thought that when it was dark his bedroom filled up with monsters. But there came a time when he was too old to be allowed to keep. sleeping with the light on. That first night he was paralysed with fear , and his mind was full of monsters. So much so, that he went over to his wardrobe to get a torch. But when he opened the wardrobe door he came face to face
with a monster, and he let out the loudest scream in the world. 

The monster was equally shocked. It grabbed its multicoloured hair and started crying. The monster cried for so long that the boy's shock and fear subsided. He calmed the monster as much as he could, and started talking to him, asking him why he was crying, and what he was doing there. The monster told him it lived in the wardrobe, but never went out, because it was afraid of the boy. When the boy asked for the reason, the monster told that the boy's face seemed to be the most horrible thing it had ever seen with eyes, ears and a nose. The boy felt exactly the same way about the monster, who had an enormous head full of hair.

Eventually, they realized that both of them had been afraid of the same thing: the unknown. To lose their fear of each other all they had to do was get to know each other. They applied the same strategy to the other things. Together they travelled the world, seeing lions, tigers, crocodiles and even dragons. It was the first time either of them had seen such creatures, but they made the effort to get to know them, and ended up dispelling their fear, and becoming friends. All kinds of creatures visited the boy's bedroom each night and, instead of fearing them he learnt to get to know them and befriend them.

Directions– (Q. 36-39) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 

36. HORRIBLE: (A) strange , (B) offensive, (C) humorous , (D) unholy, (E) appealing
Ans : (B)

37. DISPELLING: (A) eliminating, (B) ignoring, (C) assembling, (D) recalling, (E) accumulating
Ans : (A)

38. LOSE: (A) suffer , (B) overcome, (C) gain , (D) failure, (E) yield
Ans : (B)

39. CALMED: (A) relieved , (B) freed , (C) imposed , (D) consoled, (E) attended
Ans : (D)

Directions– (Q. 40-42) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

40. ALLOWED: (A) granted , (B) oppressed, (C) caged , (D) punised, (E) denied
Ans : (E)

41. SUBSIDED: (A) decreased , (B) fulfilled, (C) ended , (D) enhanced, (E) created
Ans : (D)

42. ENORMOUS: (A) repulsive , (B) strange, (C) sparse , (D) tiny, (E) foul
Ans : (D)

43. What happened to the boy when he slept with the lights off ?
(A) He dreamt of monsters with multicoloured hair.
(B) The boy cried all night and couldn't sleep.
(C) The monsters filled up the boy's room.
(D) The monster screamed so loudly that it woke the boy.
(E) The monster in the boy's wardrobe went to his parents' room.
Ans : (C)

44. What were the boy and the monster afraid of ?
(A) They were both afraid of playing in the dark.
(B) The monster was afraid of the dark, while the boy was afraid of light.
(C) They were both afraid of the same thing-the unknown.
(D) They were both afraid of the boy's parents.
(E) They were both afraid of the dragons that ate children and monsters.
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the story ? 
(A) The monster who was afraid of the creatures., (B) Monsters are not friendly creatures.
(C) Why should we sleep in the dark., (D) The boy and the creatures.
(E) The boy who was afraid of the dark.
Ans : (D)

46. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the boy as per the passage ?
(A) The boy slept with the lights switched off.
(B) The boy finally conquered his fear of the unknown.
(C) The boy had befriended the monster.
(D) The boy travelled the world and became friends with creatures ., (E) All are true.
Ans : (A)

47. Which of the following is TRUE about the monster as per the passage ?
(A) The monster mocked the boy., (B) The monster was afraid of the boy's parents.
(C) The monster was envious of the boy., (D) The monster had multicoloured hair.
(E) None is true.
Ans : (D)

48. Why did the monster start crying ?
(A) The boy had hurt the monster while opening the wadrobe.
(B) The monster was afraid of the boy as he looked strange to him.
(C) The monster had been locked inside the wadrobe.
(D) The monster thought that the boy would capture him.
(E) None of these.
Ans : (B)

49. Why was the boy afraid of sleeping in the dark ?
(A) He had terrible nightmares whenever he slept in the dark.
(B) He thought that the monster will eat him up in the dark.
(C) He thought that his hair would turn muticoloured in the dark.
(D) He thought that monsters filled up his bedroom in the dark.
(E) None of these.
Ans : (D)

50. Why did the creatures visit the boy every night ?
(A) The monster had called them to scare the boy.
(B) The creatures were afraid of staying in the jungle.
(C) The creatures had plotted to kill the monster in the boy's bedroom.
(D) The boy had befriended them., (E) None of these
Ans : (D)