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Showing posts with label Reasoning Practice Paper PO/Officer Level (English). Show all posts
Showing posts with label Reasoning Practice Paper PO/Officer Level (English). Show all posts

Thursday, 7 June 2012

IBPS PO Reasoning Sample Practice Paper -24

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Directions—(Q. 1–7) Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it—
A group of seven friends, A, B, C, D, E, F and G work as Economist, Agriculture Officer, IT Officer, Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex Officer and Research Analyst, for Banks L, M, N; P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the same order. C works for Bank N and is neither a Research Analyst nor a Clerk. E is an IT Officer and works for Bank R. A works as Forex Officer and does not work for Bank L or Q. The one who is an Agriculture Officer works for Bank M. The one who works for Bank L works as a Terminal Operator. F works for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research Analyst. D is not an Agriculture Officer.

1. Who amongst the following works as an Agriculture Officer ?
(A) C, (B) B, (C) F, (D) D, (E) None
Ans : (B)

2. What is the profession of C ?
(A) Terminal operator, (B) Agriculture Officer, (C) Economist, (D) Cannot be determined, (E) None
Ans : (C)

3. For which Bank does B work ?
(A) M, (B) S, (C) L, (D) Either M or S, (E) None
Ans : (A)

4. What is the profession of the person who works for Bank S ?
(A) Clerk, (B) Agriculture Officer, (C) Terminal Operator, (D) Forex Officer, (E) None
Ans : (D)

5. For which Bank does D work ?
(A) Q, (B) L, (C) N, (D) S, (E) None
Ans : (B)

6. Who amongst the following works as a Clerk ?
(A) C, (B) B, (C) F, (D) D, (E) None
Ans : (C)

7. Which of the following combinations of person, profession and bank is correct ?
(A) A-Forex Officer-M, (B) D-Clerk-L, (C) F-Agriculture Officer-Q, (D) B-Agriculture Officer-S, (E) None
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 8–13) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

8. Statements : Some stones are rocks., All rocks are boulders.,
Some boulders are mountains. All hills are mountains.
Conclusions : I. Some stones are mountains. II. Some hills are boulders.
III. Some boulders are stones., IV. All mountains are hills.
(A) None follows, (B) Only II follows, (C) Only II and III follow, (D) Only III follows, (E) None
Ans : (D)

9. Statements : All arrows are bows. All bows are swords.
Some swords are daggers. All daggers are knives.
Conclusions : I. All knives are bows. II. Some swords are knives.
III. All bows are arrows. IV. All arrows are swords.
(A) Only II follows, (B) Only II and IV follow, (C) Only III and IV follow, (D) Only I and III follow, (E) None
Ans : (B)

10. Statements : Some pianos are violins. Some violins are drums.
All drums are guitars., No guitar is a flute.
Conclusions : I. Some guitar are pianos., II. Some drums are flutes.
III. Some pianos are drums. IV. No flute is a drum.
(A) None follows, (B) Only I follows, (C) Only either II or IV follows, (D) Only IV follows, (E) None
Ans : (D)

11. Statements : Some airplane are helicopters. All helicopters are gliders.
All gliders are kites. All kites are balloons.
Conclusions : I. Some helicopters are balloons., II. All kites are airplanes.
III. All balloons are gliders. IV. All helicopters are kites.
(A) Only IV follows, (B) Only either II or III follow, (C) Only III follows, (D) Only I follows, (E) None
Ans : (A)

12. Statements : All kings are warriors. All soldiers are warriors.
All sentries are warriors., Some sentries are soldiers.
Conclusions : I. Some sentries are kings., II. All warriors are soldiers.
III. Some warriors are sentries., IV. Some soldiers are kings.
(A) None follows, (B) Only I follows, (C) Only II follows, (D) Only II and III follow, (E) None
Ans : (E)

13. Statements : All plastics are glasses., Some glasses are wood. Some woods are metals. All metals are cloths.
Conclusions : I. Some cloths are wood. II. Some woods are both cloths and glasses. III. Some glasses are plastics. IV. Some cloths are metals.
(A) None follows, (B) All follow, (C) Only II and IV follow, (D) Only I and II follow, (E) None
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Read the information given below carefully and then answer the questions that follow. In a certain code language :
I. ‘she likes apples’ is written as ‘pic sip dip’.
II. ‘parrot likes apples lots’ is written as ‘dip pic tif nit’.
III. ‘she likes parrots’ is written as ‘tif sip dip’.

14. How is ‘parrot’ written in that code language ?
(A) pic, (B) dip, (C) tif, (D) Cannot be determined, (E) None
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following statements is not necessary in order to answer the above question ?
(A) I, (B) II, (C) III, (D) All are required, (E) Either II or III
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
S M P 6 3 * $ A 4 L N @ Z 5 # V U 7 E 8 B % T Y X G 2 I & 9 W

16. Which of the following is the third to the left of the fifteenth from the left end ?
(A) @, (B) 5, (C) 7, (D) U, (E) None
Ans : (A)

17. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by an even number and preceded by a symbol ?
(A) None, (B) One, (C) Two, (D) Three, (E) More than three
Ans : (A)

18. What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
P M 3 A $ L Z @ # ?
(A) U V E, (B) V # E, (C) 7 U 8, (D) V 7 #, (E) None
Ans : (C)

19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) A 4 *, (B) T B Y, (C) 9 I W, (D) V 5 U, (E) P S 6
Ans : (A)

20. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a vowel and immediately preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None, (B) One, (C) Two, (D) Three, (E) More than three
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and then decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) if both statement I and II are independent causes.
(D) if both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) if both statement I and II are effects of some common cause.

21. I. The government has amended tax laws to boost exports.
II. The export sector has been passing through difficult times due to heavy tax burdens.
Ans : (B)

22. I. Budgetary allocation for building a better railway network e.g. constructing new railway lines has increased.
II. There has been a substantial drop in the number of passenger opting for air travel.
Ans : (D)

23. I. The production of pulses has dropped for the third consecutive year.
II. India has decided to import pulses this year.
Ans : (A)

24. I. The Bank has provided a link on its website to obtain feed-back from customers.
II. Customers have been complaining about poor services in the Bank’s branches.
Ans : (B)

25. I. Indian citizens are willing to incur the cost of using environment friendly technology.
II. Many countries are taking steps to cut their carbon emissions.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Below is given a passange followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of
the passage and decide upon the degree of its truth or falsity. Mark answer—
(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it properly follows from the statements of facts given.
(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(C) if the ‘data are inadequate’ i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the data is likely to be true or false.
(D) if the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
(E) if the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it cannot be drawn from the given facts or contradicts the given facts.

The pace of recruitment has unmistakably picked up in the last few months. After two abysmal quarters the business sentiment has turned positive. A flurry of hiring activity has been observed across the manufacturing sector and the IT and ITES sector catering to telecom and legal process outsourcing. The advent of new players and an aggressive expansion of telecom giants has seen a bullish outlook for the industry with a promise of exponential growth. But is the worst over for businesses across the spectrum ? Firms are going back to the drawing board and dusting off their plans to see if there is scope for atleast incremental hiring in specific domains where they want to build expertise. Besides that there are few signs to show that there is a broad based revival in the market.

26. Companies in various sectors have projected higher business growth in the near future.
Ans : (B)

27. The telecom sector has experienced negative growth in the past few years.
Ans : (D)

28. Many companies in the manufacturing sector have decided to reduce their fresh intake of employees.
Ans : (C)

29. Persons with legal qualifications and expertise will earn more in the future.
Ans : (C)

30. Most companies across sectors have decided to increase their manpower requirement manifold.
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and mark the letter of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None’ as your answer.Letter : T A G R S D N E V U X PDigit/Symbol Code : @ 4 9 # % 3 ©5 1 β7 6Conditions—(i) if the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel only the first letter may be coded and no code may be given to the last letter.
(ii) if both the first and last letters are vowels then both are to be coded as $.
(iii) if the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant then the codes are to be interchanged.

31. DESGRT: (A) 35%9#, (B) 35%9#@, (C) @5%9#3, (D) 359%#@, (E) None
Ans : (B)

32. NERSPU: (A) @5#%6@, (B) @5#56©, (C) ©5#%6, (D) ©5#%6β, (E) None
Ans : (C)

33. XNTPGA: (A) 7©@694, (B) 7©@964, (C) 4©@69, (D) 7©@69, (E) None
Ans : (D)

34. ESVNTU: (A) $%1©@$, (B) 5%1©@β, (C) $%1©@β, (D) $%1©β 5, (E) None
Ans : (A)

35. UXPTGN: (A) ©76@9β, (B) $76@9©, (C) β 76@9©, (D) β
76@9B, (E) None
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing. Given answer—
(A) if only Course of action I follows.
(B) if only Course of action II follows.
(C) if either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.
(D) if neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.
(E) if both courses of action I and II follow.

36.
Statement : An increasing number of graduates produced by Indian universities are unemployable.Courses of action : I. Colleges and Institutes of higher learning should be given greater autonomy to decide course content.
II. World class foreign universities should be encouraged to set up campuses in India.
Ans : (A)

37.
Statement : Heavy rains hit the state during October, just before the State Assembly elections and caused heavy damage to standing crops in most parts of the state.Courses of action : I. Elections should be postponed to give candidates the opportunity to campaign.
II. The Government should announce a relief package for those who are affected.
Ans : (B)

38.
Statement : Cell phone users have found that tariff plans are not as attractive as promoted by telecome companies and complained to regulatory authority about the same.Courses of action : I. The regulatory authority should direct telecome companies to be transparent on the tariff structure of all plans.
II. The government should restrict the number of telecome companies operating in the country.
Ans : (A)

39.
Statement : A number of school children in the local schools have fallen ill after the consumption of their subsidised tiffin provided by the school authority.Courses of action : I. The tiffin facility of all schools should be discontinued with immediate effect.
II. The government should implement a system to certify the quality of tiffin provided by the school.
Ans : (B)

40.
Statement : The dolphin population in India has been decreasing sharply over the past few years.Courses of action : I. Dolphins should be declared an endangered species and be bred in aquariums or protected areas.
II. Locals should be enlisted to protect dolphins.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow :
A Research Institute is recruiting a libration to digitise its information resources among other duties. Candidates must possess the following criteria. The candidate must :

I. be not less than 35 years and not exceed 40 years as on 01- 11-2009.
II. have a Bachelor’s Degree in Library and Information Science with 65 per cent marks.
III. have a Ph.D. in Library Science.
IV. have post qualification experience of at least 4 years in a University Library.

However if the candidate fulfils the above mentioned criteria except—
(a) at (II) above but the candidates has a UGC NET certification with all the other above criteria fulfilled he/she may be referred to the Dean.
(b) at (IV) above but all the eligibility criteria are met and the candidate has at least one year’s experience in a research institute he/ she may be offered contractual appointment for a year.
Based on the above criteria study carefully whether the following candidates are eligible for the recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All cases are given to you as on 1-11-2009.

Mark answer :
(A) if he/she is to be shortlisted.
(B) if he/she is not to be shortlisted.
(C) if he/she should be referred to the Dean.
(D) if he/she may be offered contractual appointment if required.
(E) if the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.

41. Anil Rath has a doctorate in Library Science from Karnataka University in 2003. Born on July 21, 1969, he graduated in Library and Information Science from Karnataka University where he was Assistant Librarian for four years since 2005.
Ans : (B)

42. Dr. Samir Bali has a Ph.D. in Library Science and has been with the Institute of Fundamental Research as Assistant Librarian since October 2008. He graduated with a degree in Library and Information Science in 1994 at the age of 22. He obtained 70 per cent in his graduation.
Ans : (D)

43. Vaishali Shetty has a librarian at STS University since 2007 when she qualified in the UGC NET examination. She has a degree in Library and Information Science with 60 per cent. Her first job was as junior librarian at TRP Institute of Development Research from October 2000 to December 2001.
Ans : (B)

44. Vivek Jha has a Ph.D. in Library and Information Science. He graduated in Library and Information Science in 1992 with 65 per cent. He was born on 1-10- 1974. Since July 2005, he has been working as Deputy Librarian at a deemed University.
Ans : (A)

45. A graduate in Library Science with 69 per cent Dr. M. Puri has been working at Ranchi University for 4 years as Deputy Librarian. She earned her doctorate while working for the Labour Research Institute for 5 years as Assistant Librarian. She is 38 years old as on the required date.
Ans : (A)

46. Megha Vaidya has a graduate degree in Library Science from Punjab University where she has been a librarian for the past 5 years. In 2002 she obtained her UGC NET qualification at the age of 29. She obtained 72 per cent graduation.
Ans : (E)

47. Anup Gupta is obtaining his Ph.D. from YCM University where he has been Junior Librarian since 2004. He qualified in the UGC NET exam. in June, 2000. He has a degree in Library and Information Science with 62 per cent. His date of birth is 17-10-1973.
Ans : (B)

48. Kirti Shukla obtained her doctorate and Bachelor’s degree from Patna University. She obtained 63 per cent at graduation. She obtained her UGC NET qualification in 1998 when she was 26.
Ans : (E)

49. Prakash Sinha has been a librarian for a government institution for three years. Prior to this he was a University Librarian for 7 years after completing his Ph.D. in Library Science. He graduated in 1991 with 68 per cent in Library Science. He is exactly 40 years of age on the specified date.
Ans : (A)

50. Rohan Sachdev obtained his UGC NET qualification after his graduation in 1998 when he began working. He has been Assistant Librarian for the past two years with a research instiute. He obtained 65 per cent in his graduation in Library Science. He earned his Ph.D. in Library Science in 2007. His date of birth is 22-10-1974.
Ans : (D)

Wednesday, 16 May 2012

SBI PO/ IBPS PO Reasoning Practice Paper - 22


Dear Student you can go to VIGYAAPANs appearing on this page- to help us....

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the onethat does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19 (B) 17 (C) 23 (D) 29 (E) 27

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three

4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427 (B) 5247 (C) 5847 (D) 5237 (E) None of these

5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to ……….
(A) JM (B) IL (C) JL (D) IK (E) None of these

6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three

7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH (B) BHSPMCDRH (C) BHSPOCDRH (D) BHSPNHRDC (E) None of these

8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code language ?
(A) da (B) ja (C) na (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper (B) Iron (C) Aluminium (D) Zinc (E) Steel

10. What should come next in the following number series ? 9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1 (E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5 (B) 1 (C) 6 (D) 4 (E) 9

12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10
th (B) 11th (C) 10th or 11th (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these
13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22 (B) 23 (C) 24 (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these

14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A (B) C (C) B (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F (B) V X Z (C) F I K (D) M O Q (E) L N P

Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I follows. (B) If only conclusion II follows. (C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

16. Statements : Some desks are tents. Some tents are rivers. All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions : I. Some ponds are tents. II. Some ponds are desks.
17. Statements : All chair are pens. Some pens are knives. All knives are rats.
Conclusions : I. Some rats are chairs. II. Some rats are pens.
18. Statements : Some forests are huts. Some huts are walls. Some walls are nets.
Conclusions : I. Some nets are forests. II. Some nets are huts.
19. Statements : All tables are windows. All windows are rooms. All rooms are buses.
Conclusions : I. Some buses are tables. II. Some rooms are tables.
20. Statements : Some trees are boxes. All boxes are bricks. All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions : I. Some dogs are trees. II. Some bricks are trees
21. Statements : All goats are flowers. No flower is branch. Some branches are roots.
Conclusions : I. Some roots are goats. II. No root is goat.
22. Statements : All pots are rings. All bangles are rings. All rings are paints.
Conclusions : I. Some paints are pots. II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
B# AR 5 8 E%M F4 J 1 U@ H2 © 9 T I6 * W 3 P # K7 $ Y
23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) % (B) W (C) $ (D) J (E) None of these

24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three

25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three

26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three
27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U (B) T (C) F (D) H (E) None of these
28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) Four
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4 (B) © T H (C) W P 6 (D) # 7 3 (E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol : 4 %3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d
Letter Code : P M IT R QJ FHAE UNBG L
Conditions : (i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.

(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.
30. 4%@93*: (A) PMFTIB (B) PMFTIP (C) BMFTIB (D) XMFTIX (E) None of these
31. $1896©: (A) RQJTNH (B) HQJTNR (C) RQJTNR (D) YQJTNY (E) None of these
32. 2*#836: (A) YBEJIY (B) ABEJIN (C) NBEJIA (D) XBEJIX (E) None of these
33. 8732@9: (A) TGIAFJ (B) YGIAFY (C) JGIAFT (D) XGIAFX (E) None of these
34. 7#$%35: (A) GERMIU (B) UERMIG (C) GERMIG (D) XERMIX (E) None of these
35. 931%©d: (A) TIQMHL (B) LIQMHT (C) LIQMHL (D) TIQMHT (E) None of these
36. 46*389 : (A) PNBIJT (B) XNBIJX (C) TNBIJP (D) PNBIJP (E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’. ‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’. ‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true. (B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. (D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.

37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R d K Conclusions : I. K d J II. K % J
38. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W Conclusions : I. W % T II. H © N
39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V $ T Conclusions : I. V % F II. F @ T
40. Statements : W © D, D $ B, B @ H Conclusions : I. H % D II. W @ B
41. Statements : F d T, T $ M, M © R Conclusions : I. R $ F II. M © F
42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J Conclusions : I. R @ H II. J % H
43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E Conclusions : I. E d B II. D @ V
Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the left of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.

44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H (B) F (C) R (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these

45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R (B) F (C) M (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these

46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P (B) H (C) W (D) T (E) Data inadequate

47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T (B) W (C) R (D) F (E) Data inadequate

48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M (B) R (C) T (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these

49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the third person ?
(A) NHM (B) PHN (C) TRP (D) TWF (E) None of these

50. Who is to the immediate left of P ?
(A) H (B) F (C) R (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these


Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 987654
11. (D) 963, 84 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.   B# AR E %M FJ U@H © T I* W P # K$ Y,   11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A), 50 (E)

Thursday, 9 February 2012

IBPS REASONING SAMPLE PRACTICE QUESTIONS PAPER 20


1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Sand
(B) Stone
(C) Cement
(D) Brick
(E) Wall
Ans : (E)
2. If Yellow is called Green, Green is called Black, Black is called White, White is called Red, Red is called Blue, Blue is called Orange then what is the colour of milk ?
(A) White
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Green
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Pointing to a photograph Seema said ‘He is the only grandson of my mother’s father-in-law’. How is the man in photograph related to Seema ?
(A) Father
(B) Uncle
(C) Cousin
(D) Brother
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans : (D)
4. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘–’ and ‘–’ means ‘+’ what is the value of—
17 + 15 – 135 × 9 ÷ 70 ?
(A) 270
(B) 240
(C) 170
(D) 200
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the fourth, the fifth, the sixth, the eighth and the eleventh letters of the word GOURMANDISE using each letter only once first letter of the word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is X. If no such word can be formed your answer is Y—
(A) D
(B) R
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (D)
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Nickel
(D) Copper
(E) Brass
Ans : (E)
7. In a certain code EXTRA is written as % 5 # 73 and NOSE is written as 4 @ 8%; how is STORE written in that code ?
(A) 5#@7%
(B) 8#@7%
(C) 8#@%5
(D) 8@75%
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. In a row of children facing North, Shamika is third to the right of Nikhil who is seventeenth from the right end of the row. Ravi is fifth to the left of Shamika and is twentieth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 39
(B) 38
(C) 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXAMINATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. In a certain code ACQUIRE is written as EIRUQAC, how is DENSITY written in that code ?
(A) YTISNDE
(B) YITSNED
(C) YTISNED
(D) YITSNDE
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) These questions are based on the following letter/number/ symbol arrangement.
Study it carefully and answer the questions.
T 8 # 1 7 F J 5 % E R @ 4 D A 2 B © Q K 3 1 U H 6 L
11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a vowel ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) E@%
(B) #78
(C) 5EJ
(D) U6
(E) QKB
Ans : (E)
13. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)
14. What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
TL8 #6I 7HF ?
(A) FUJ
(B) JU
(C) FU
(D) JU5
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
15. Which of the following is seventh to the right of thirteenth from the right ?
(A) 1
(B)
(C) F
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each question below are given three statements followed by two conclus ions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answer (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E) is correct answer and indicate it on the answersheet. Give answer—
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow
Ans : (C)
16. Statements :
Some cards are plastics.
Some Plastics are metals.
All metals are pots.
Conclusions :
I. Some pots are cards.
II. No pot is a card.
Ans : (C)
17. Statements :
All chairs are tables.
All tables are trains.
All trains are buses.
Conclusions :
I. All tables are buses.
II. All trains are tables.
Ans : (A)
18. Statements :
Some machines are computers.
Some computers are calculators.
Some calculators are phones.
Conclusions :
I. Some phones are computers.
II. Some computers are machines.
Ans : (B)
19. Statements :
All spoons are bowls.
Some bowls are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Conclusions :
I. Some glasses are spoons.
II. Some plates are bowls.
Ans : (D)
20. Statements :
Some envelopes are packets.
Some packets are boxes.
All boxes are parcels.
Conclusions :
I. Some parcels are packets.
II. Some parcels are boxes.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and give answer—
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
21. Among D, B, J, T and F who was the first person to reach the office ?
I. D reached before J and F but after B.
II. B was not the first to reach office.
Ans : (E)
22. What is the code for ‘not’ in the code language ?
I. In the code language ‘do not go’ is written as ‘la ra de’.
II. In the code language ‘go to school’ is written as ‘ka ma ra.’
Ans : (D)
23. How many children are there in the class ?
I. Rita ranks 23rd from the top.
II. Anita ranks 17th from the bottom and is five ranks above Rita.
Ans : (E)
24. How is Neela related to Deepa ?
I. Neela’s mother is Deepa’s brother’s wife.
II. Neela is the only granddaughter of Deepa’s mother.
Ans : (C)
25. R is in which direction with respect to T ?
I. R is to the east of H who is to the north of T.
II. Q is to the east of T and to the South of R
Ans : (C)

Wednesday, 8 February 2012

IBPS PO/Clerk QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PRACTICE QUESTIONS


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1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes, (b) 25 minutes, (c) 28 minutes, (d) 34 minutes

2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096, (b) 8192, (c) 512, (d) 1024
 
3. Find the number missing at question mark:
10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100, (b) 103, (c) 78, (d) 128
 
4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes , (b) 36 minutes , (c) 38 minutes , (d) 40 minutes
 
5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 , (b) 9 , (c) 7 , (d) 6
 
6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 , (b) 6 , (c) 9 , (d) 18
 
7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 , (b) 0.45 , (c) 0.045 , (d) 45
 
8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 , (b) 200 ,m (c) 180 , (d) 150
 
9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 , (b) 15 , (c) 17 , (d) 14
 
10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 , (b) 20 , (c) 23 , (d) 17
 
11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 , (b) 1:4000 , (c) 9:10 , (d) 1:400
 
12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 , (b) 250 , (c) 240 , (d) 210
 
13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 , (b) 00 , (c) 75 , (d) 50
 
14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds , (b) 36 seconds , (c) 20 seconds , (d) 18 seconds
 
15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds , (b) 70 seconds , (c) 60 seconds , (d) 100 seconds
 
16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 , (b) Rs. 24 , (c) Rs. 36 , (d) Rs. 40
 
17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 , (b) 8 , (c) 10 , (d) 6
 
18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 , (b) 5005 , (c) 9900 , (d) 9050
 
19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m , (b) 5m , (c) 13m , (d) 11m
 
20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 , (b) 8 , (c) 16 , (d) 2
 
21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 , , (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3, (c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 , (d) No solution
 
22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 , (b) 1/6 , (c) 1/3 , (d) 1/2
 
23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% , (b) 7.5% , (c) 16% , (d) 15%
 
24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 , (b) 11 , (c) 9 , (d) 5
 
25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 , (b) 1200 , (c) 1500 , (d) 2400
 
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute , (b) 25 minutes, (c) 7 minutes 30 seconds , (d) 10 minutes,
 
27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes , (b) 10 minute , (c) 100 minutes , (d) 10000 minutes
 
28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 , (b) 750 , (c) 400 , (d) 300
 
29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days , (b) 7 days , (c) 10 days , (d) 8 days
 
30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 , (b) 28 , (c) 26 , (d) 27
 
31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % , (b) 66 2/3 % , (c) 25 % , (d) 50 %
 
32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 , (b) 15,000m2 , (c) 54,000m2 , (d) 13,500m2
 
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 , (b) 1.0 , (c) 2.5 , (d) 2.0
 
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 , (b) 500 , (c) 475 , (d) 450
 
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle, (b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle, (d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle
 
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 , (b) 90 , (c) 270 , (d) 180
 
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre , (b) Centroid , (c) Orthocenter , (d) Incentre
 
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r , (b) 4r , (c) ?5r , (d) ?3r
 
39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 , (b) 2:3 , (c) 8:27 , (d) 4:6
 
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3?2, 6, 6?2 ?
(a) 3 , (b) 2 , (c) ?2 , (d) ?3
 
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 , (b) 30 , (c) 50 , (d) 45
 
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr , (b) 4 km/hr , (c) 4.5 km/hr , (d) 5 km/hr
 
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 , (b) 26 , (c) 30 , (d) 32
 
44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm ,(b) 34 sq.cm , (c) 24 sq.cm , (d) 42 sq.cm
 
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 , (b) 69 , (c) 63 , (d) 57
 
46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 , (b) 22 , (c) 25 , (d) 30
 
47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 , (b) 2 , (c) 6 , (d) 21
 
48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 , (b) 600 , (c) 1050 , (d) 750
 
49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 , , (b) 765 , (c) 700 , (d) 510
 
50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 , (b) 37 , (c) 38 , (d) 31
 
Answers
1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A
2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B
4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A
6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C
7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B
8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D
9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B

Tuesday, 7 February 2012

IBPS PO/Clerk REASONING PRACTICE QUESTIONS 17

ARITHMETICAL REASONING
DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 12: Choose the correct alternative:
 
1.     P. Q. R and S play a game of cards.  P says to Q, “If I give you 8 cards, you will have as many as R has and I shall have 3 less than what R has.  Also, if I take 6 cards from R, I shall have twice as many as S has.”  If Q and S together originally had 50 cards, then how many cards has P got?
a]  40                     b]  37                  c] 27                   d] 23                 e]  None of these

2.     In a chess tournament each of six players will play every other player exactly once.  How many matches will be played during the tournament?
a]  12                     b] 15                   c] 30                    d] 36                 e]  None of these

3.     Ramrao cam claim Rs. 15 for each km which he travels by taxi and Rs. 5 for each km which he drives his own car.  If in one week he claimed Rs. 500 for travelling 80 km, then how many kilometers (kms) did he travel by taxi?
a]  10 Kms              b] 20 Kms            c] 30 Kms             d] 40 Kms          e]  None of these

4.     Rohit’s brother is 3 years senior to him.  His father was 28 years of age when his sister was born while his mother was 26 years of age when he was born.  If his sister was 4 years of age when his brother was born.  What was the age of Rohit’s father and mother respectively when his brother was born?
a]  32 yrs., 23 yrs.   b]  32 yrs., 29 yrs. c] 35 yrs., 29 yrs.  d] 35 yrs., 33 yrs.e]  None of these

5.     Komal cut a cake into two halves and cuts one half into smaller pieces of equal size.  Each of small prices is 25 gms in weight.  If she has 9 pieces of the cake in all with her, how heavy was the original cake?
       a]  300 grams          b]  400 grams       c] 350 grams        d] 450 grams      e]  None of these.

6.     A bus starts from city A.  The numbers of women in the bus is half of the number of men. In the city B, 10 men leave the bus and five women enter.  Now, the number of men and women is equal.  In the beginning of the journey, how many passengers were in the bus? 
       a]  45                     b]  36                  c] 30                   d] 15                 e]  None of these.

7.     P, Q, R, S and T play a game of cards.  P says to Q, “If you give me 3 cards, you will have as many cards I originally had while if S takes 5 cards from you, he will have as many as T has.”  Also, P and T together also have the same number of cards as P and R taken together.  If they all together have 150 cards, then how many cards has R got?
       a]  28                     b]  29                  c] 31                   d] 35                 e]  None of these.

8.     Rohan is twice as old as Tejas.  Three years ago, he was three times as old as Tejas.  How old is Rohan now?
       a]  8 years              b] 10 years          c] 11 years           d] 12 years         e] None of these.

9.     The age of a father is twice that of the elder son.  Ten years hence, the age of the father will be three times the age of the younger son.  If the difference of the ages of the two sons is 15 years, then the age of the father is:
       a]  70 yrs.               b]  75 yrs.            c] 50 years           d] 60 years         e)  None of these.

10.   The number of girls in a class is three times the number of boys.  Whine one of the following numbers cannot represent the total number of children in the class?
       a]  40                     b]  42                  c] 44                   d] 48                 e]  None of these.

11.   A group of 1200 people consisting of captains and soldiers is travelling in a train.  For every 15 soldiers is travelling in a train.  For every 15 soldiers there is one captain.  The number of captains in the group is:
       a]  85                     b]  80                  c] 75                   d] 70                 e]  None of these.

12.   In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter.  The age of the father is three times that of his daughter and the age of the son is half of his mother.  The wife is 9 years younger to her husband and the brother is seven years older than his sister.  What is the age of the mother?
       a]  40 yrs.               b]  45 yrs.            c] 50 yrs.             d] 60 yrs.           e]  None of these.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 13 to 17: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow:
         

       
       



P = 60            R = 2P                   U = ½P         S= 2U

13.   How many people can read & write any one language except Spanish?
a]  210                   b]  150                c] 240                  d] 200                e]  180

14.   People who can read & write English, French & Spanish are represented by:
a]  Y                      b]  T                    c] Q                    d] X                  e]  None of these

15.   People who can read and write all the four languages can be represented by:
a]  Z                      b]  W                   c] Y                     d] X                  e)  None of these

16.   How many people known only Spanish?
a]  120                   b]  40                  c] 30                   d] 60                 e)  None of these

17.   Which of the following languages is known by the maximum number of people as per the diagram?
a]  Spanish only      b]  French only     c] English only      d] Russian only   e)  Either (A) or (C)

DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS 18 TO 21: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow:

(i).   The rectangle represents govt. employees.
(ii)    The triangle represents urban people.
  1. The circle represents graduates.
  2. The square represents clerks
18.   Which of the following statements is true?
a]  All govt. employees are clerks.
b]  Some govt. employees are graduates as well as clerks.
c]  All govt. employees are graduates.
d]  All clerks are govt. employees but note graduates.
e]  None of these

19.   Choose the correct statement.
a]  Some clerks are govt. employees.
b] No clerk is from urban areas.
c]  All graduates are from urban areas.
d]  All graduates of govt. employees.  
e]  None of these

20.   Which of the following numbers represent urban govt. employees, who are graduates but not clerks?
a]  9                       b]  4                    c] 10                   d] 5                   e]  1

21.   Which number represents clerks, who are govt. employee but neither graduates nor live in urban areas?
a]  4                       b]  2                    c] 9                     d] 10                 e]  None of these.
 

DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 26Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow:
Data on 450 candidates, who took an examination in Chemistry, Physics and Biology is given below:
Passed in all the subjects                                                      167
Failed in all the subjects                                                        69
Failed in Chemistry                                                                175
Failed in Physics                                                                  199
Failed in Biology                                                                   191
Passed in Chemistry only                                                       62
Passed in Physics only                                                          48
Passed in Biology only                                                          52

22.   How many failed in Chemistry only?
a]  15                     b]  21                  c]  30                   d] 42                 e]  None of these.

23.   How many failed in one subject only?
a]  152                   b]  144                c] 61                   d] 56                 e]  None of these.

24.   How many passed in Physics and at least one more subject?
a]  210                   b]  203                c] 170                  d] 94                 e]  None of these

25.   How many failed in exactly two subjects?
a]  56                     b]  61                  c] 152                  d] 162                e]  None of these

26.   How many passed at least in one subject?
a]  450                   b]  390                c] 304                  d] 167                e]  None of these.

DIRECTIONS for questions 27 to 31Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
2 4 8 5 6 b 1 3 @ 6 4 5 2 # 9 7 1 © 3 •

27.     How many pairs of numbers are there in the series highlighted in bold in the above arrangement each of which has as many numbers between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the numerical series?
a]  One                   b]  Two                c] Three               d] Four              e]  Five.

28.     If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the twelfth from the right end of the above arrangement?
a]  2                       b]  5                    c] 3                     d] 7                   e]  None of these

29.      Which of the following digit/symbol is second to the right of the tenth from the left end?
a]  @                     b]  4                    c] 3                     d] 5                   e]  2

30      How many symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square? (1 is also a perfect square.)
a]  One                   b]  Two                c] Three               d] Four              e]  FIve

31.      How many perfect squares are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number? (1 is also a perfect square.)
a]  None                 b]  One                c] Two                 d] Three            
e]  More than three

Directions for questions 32 to 36: Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
           R D A K 5 B I 2 M J E N 9 7 U Z V 1 W 3 H 4 F Y 8 P 6 T G

32.      How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a vowel?
a]  None                 b]  One                c] Two                 d] Three            
e]  More than three

33.      Which of the following is the eighth to the left of the seventeenth from the left end?
a]  M                      b]  J                    c] 8                     d] 5                   e) None of these

34.      Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
           a) E 9 J                      b)   Z 1 U                  c)  H W 4                   d) Y 4 8                  e)   B 2 K

35.      Which of the following is the sixth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end?
           a)  5                           b) Z                                c)                          V  d) 1                    e) None of these

36.      How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by another consonant?
           a) None                       b) One                       c) Two                       d) Three                  e) More than three
Answer:
1.     d   2.     b.   3.     a.   4.     b.  5.     b.  6.     a.   7.     d.   8.     b.  9. c   10. b.     11. d.     12. b.     13. a.     14. a.     15. a.     16. d.     17. c.     18. b.        19. a.     20. d.     21. e      22. a.     23. c.     24. b.     25. D.    26. b.     27. c.          28.     b.       29.     d.       30.     b.       31. c.  32.     a.       33. a.  34. e 35. c      36  d