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Showing posts with label SSC CGL Practice Papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label SSC CGL Practice Papers. Show all posts

Tuesday, 12 June 2012

SSC CGL (Combined Graduate Level) English Sample practice Paper - 59


Pls check the VIGYAAPAN's of this site to help us.....

Directions—(Q. 1 to 10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time there was a river. He was …(1)… unfriendly. The river lived alone, and refused to share his water with any fish, plant or animal. Thus his life went on, sadly and filled with loneliness, for many centuries.

One day, a little girl with a fish bowl came to the bank of this river. In the bowl lived Scamp, her favourite little fish. The girl was about to …(2)… to another country, and she wouldn’t be able to take Scamp with her. So she had decided to give Scamp his freedom.

When Scamp …(3)… into the river, he immediately felt the river’s loneliness. He tried talking to the river, but the river asked him to go away. Scamp was a very happy little fish, and he wasn’t going to give up so …(4)…. He spoke to the river again, swam here and there, and finally he started jumping in and …(5)… of the water. The river felt tickled by all the jumping and splashing and …(6)… laughing. After a while, this put the river in such a good mood that he started talking to Scamp. Almost without knowing it, by the end of that day, Scamp and the river and become very good friends.

The river spent that night …(7)… about how much fun it was to have friends, and how much he had missed not having them. He asked himself why he had never had them, but he couldn’t remember. The next morning, Scamp …(8)… the river with a few playful splashes and that was when the river remembered why he had decided to be such an unfriendly river. He remembered that he didn’t like being tickled. He remembered perfectly how he had told everyone to scoot and that he wasn’t going to …(9)… up with all that tickling.

But, remembering how sad and lonely he had felt for so many years, the river realised that although it may sometimes be a bit inconvenient or uncomfortable, it was always …(10)… to have friends, than being lonely.

1. (A) so (B) total (C) very (D) extreme (E) full
Ans : (C)

2. (A) move (B) goes (C) visit (D) transferred (E) toured
Ans : (A)

3. (A) jump (B) fell (C) look (D) dives (E) slip
Ans : (B)

4. (A) long (B) sooner (C) nicely (D) easily (E) lazily
Ans : (D)

5. (A) in (B) beside (C) out (D) below (E) away
Ans : (C)

6. (A) stopped (B) started (C) felt (D) thought (E) heard
Ans : (B)

7. (A) forgetting (B) discuss (C) ignoring (D) thinking (E) gazing
Ans : (D)

8. (A) slept (B) woke (C) talked (D) irritate (E) splash
Ans : (C)

9. (A) live (B) stand (C) sit (D) light (E) put
Ans : (A)

10. (A) better (B) worse (C) sad (D) easy (E) happy
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) Each sentence below has a blank, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

11. Meeta ……… many gifts on her birthday.
(A) get (B) pick (C) received (D) seen (E) have
Ans : (C)

12. Please ……… the website for all the updates.
(A) browsed (B) check (C) surfing (D) think (E) hacked
Ans : (B)

13. The garden was …… of flowers of different kinds.
(A) full (B) grow (C) crowd (D) held (E) smell
Ans : (A)

14. They have ………… us to find another alternative.
(A) tell (B) spoken (C) ask (D) advised (E) help
Ans : (D)

15. Pratik was …… for a bus.
(A) thinking (B) waiting (C) telling (D) reaching (E) jumping
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16 to 25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is No Error the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore errors of punctuation if any).

16. Meghalaya is (A) / also one of (B) / the north-eastern states (C) / of our country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

17. Santosh has volunteered (A) / to help in organising (B) / the Republic Day function (C) / about his locality. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. The actor’s friends (A) / and family had (B) / decided to throw a (C) / surprise party for him. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

19. Health experts since all (A) / over the country were (B) / invited to attend the (C) / conference in the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

20. They had (A) / to mortgage their (B) / house in order to (C) / bear these expenses. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

21. They had informed (A) / us that their (B) / Chennai trip was (C) / cancel due to the strike. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

22. All the students (A) / had to attend for the (B) / industrial visit as (C) / it was compulsory. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

23. The king was (A) / amused by the (B) / jester’s response (C) / to his question. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

24. The boy was (A) / accused of stealing (B) / money as well goods (C) / from the shop. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

25. She was be asked to (A) / write a report about (B) / the meeting that (C) / she attended yesterday. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct as your answer.’

26. She has
presented (A) her views (B) in a very unique (C) fashion. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

27. She
misplaced (A) the book before (B) she could (C) reed (D) it. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

28. There were
more (A) than five thousend (B) people (C) in the auditorium. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

29. He has won many
awards (A) for his research (B) in the field (C) of ecnomics. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

30. Dadar is
none (A) of the most (B) populated areas (C) in Mumbai city. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer the questions given below them.
(1) “Why waste time sharpening your weapons when there’s no danger in sight ?” said the fox, “You’re being foolish”.
(2) A wild boar was sharpening his tusks against a tree.
(3) “My tusks are my weapons,” said the boar, “I am sharpening them so that I can defend myself from any danger.”
(4) Frightened by the boar’s sharpened tusks, he turned towards the fox instead and preyed on him.
(5) A fox passing by, asked him what he was doing.
(6) Just then a tiger appeared on the scene.

31. Which of the following should be the
first sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 6 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 2
Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following should be the
second sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 4 (E) 1
Ans : (A)

33. Which of the following should be the
fourth sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 1
Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following should be the
fifth sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 1 (E) 5
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following should be the
last (sixth) sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1 (E) 6
Ans : (C)

Directions (36-45): Fill in the blanks:

36. A party ______ to celebrate their victory.
(A) had held, (B) holds, (C) was held, (D) was to hold, (E) None.
Ans : (C)

37. What questions _____ you _____ at the interview ?
(A) were ... asking   (B) were ... asked, (C) are ... being asked, (D) have ... ask, (E) None.
Ans : (B)

38. A book on archaeology _____ by the famous professor.
(A) wrote,   (B) has written     (C) was written, (D) writes, (E) None.
Ans : (C)

39. You ______ to the manager's office.
(A) have taken   (B) will take     (C) will be taking       (D) will be taken, (E) None.
Ans : (D)


40. I _____ an invitation to a party.
(A) am giving   (B) have been given (C) have given       (D) will give , (E) None.
Ans : (B)

41. _____ the room _____ yet ?
(A) Is ... cleaning   (B) Has ... cleaned     (C) Has ... been cleaned      (D) Was ... cleans, (E) None.
Ans : (C)

42. These curtains and cushion covers ______ by my mother.
(A) have sewn   (B) is sewing     (C) had been sewn      (D) can sew, (E) None.
Ans : (C)

43. All the figures and calculations ______ thoroughly.
(A) should check       (B) should be checking       (C) should have checked       (D) should be checked, (E) None.
Ans : (D)

44. A joke ______ seriously.
(A) is not taken       (B) is not to take       (C) is not to be taken      (D) is not taking, (E) None.
Ans : (C)

45. These books ______ to us by the teacher.
(A) recommended, (B) were recommended, (C) have recommended, (D) was being recommended, (E) None.
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 46 to 48) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in the meaning to the word/group of words.

46.
Adjacent to
(A) Far away (B) Beside (C) Opposite to (D) Same as (E) Below
Ans : (B)

47.
Caught sight of
(A) Searched for (B) Forgot about (C) Suddenly noticed (D) Held (E) Nabbed
Ans : (C)

48.
Unfair
(A) Dark (B) Unhappy (C) Unaware (D) Unreasonable (E) Rational
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 49 and 50) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words.

49.
Refused
(A) Unused (B) Remembered (C) Agreed (D) Invited (E) Declined
Ans : (B)

50.
Ordered
(A) Requested (B) Unplanned (C) Punished (D) Silenced (E) Explained
Ans : (A)

Saturday, 9 June 2012

25-Reasoning Sample practice Paper for SSC CGL Combined Graduate Level


Pls Check the VIGYAPANS also to help us.

25-Reasoning Sample practice Paper for SSC CGL Combined Graduate Level

Q1.How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters MASTE using each letter only once in each word ?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
(Ans: 3)

Q2.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so fonn a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 78 (2) 48 (3) 72 (4) 54 (5) 42
(Ans: 2)

Q3.In a certain code SAFER is writ­ten as 5@3#2 and RIDE is writ­ten as 2©%#. HowisFEDS writ­ten in that code?
(1) 3#©5. (2) 3@%5 (3) 3#%5 (4) 3#%2 (5) None
(Ans: 3)

Q4.Pointing to a woman Nirmal said, She is the daughter of my wife’s grandfather’s only child”. How is . the woman related to Nirmal ?
(1) Wife (2) Sister-in-law (3) Sister (4) Data inadequate (5) None
(Ans: 4)

Q5.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does . not belong to that group?
(1) Sweet (2) Cake (3) Pastry (4) Bread (5) Biscuit.
(Ans: 1)

Q6.In a certain code CONFUSED is written as EMNBEFlV. How is SECLUDED written in that code?
(1)RDBKEFEV (2) KBDRCDCT (3) KBDREFEV (4) MDFTCDCT (5) None
(Ans: 3)

Q7. What should come next in the following letter series? Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q 0
(l)M (2)K (3)H (4)J (5) None
(Ans: 1)

Q8. How many such digits are there in the number 9254716 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are’rearranged in ascending order ?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two ,II (4) Three (5) More than three
(Ans: 2)

Q9. In a certain code language ‘bring .1 the white’ board’ is written as ‘ka na di pa’ and ‘white and black board’ is written as ‘na di sa ra’. How is ‘the’ written in that code?
(1) ‘ka (2) pa (3) ka or pa (4) Data ihadequate (5) None
(Ans: 3)

Q10. Among B, F, J, K and W each having a different weight, F is heavier than only J. B is heavier than F and W but not as heavy, as K. Who is the third heaviest?
(1) B (2) F (3)K (4)W (5) None
(Ans: 4)

Directiohs (11- 16) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

Y48A@DF3#RNIM©WP 5J2E5Z*6Q87$RU9IK

Q11. Which of the following is the seve· enth to the right of the ‘hmeteenth from the right end of the above. arrangement? .
(1) 1 (2) D (3)Z (4) $ (5) None
(Ans: 3)

Q12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrange­ment and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(I) D#A (2)JWE (3) 562 (4) $98 (5)RM3
(Ans: 2)

Q13. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately pre­ceded by a symbol and immedi­ately followed by a letter 1
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
(Ans: 5)

Q14. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately pre­ceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol ’1
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
(Ans: 3)

Q15. What should come next in the following series based on the, above arrangement?
8@D #Nl W1>J 5*6
(1) 7HU. (2) 7$U (3) 7#9 (4) B$# (p) None
(Ans: 1)

Q16. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement. which of the following will be the fourteenth from the left end? ”
(1) W (2) P (3) $ (4)J (5) None
(Ans: 4

Q.17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one which is not like the other four ?
(1) Man (2) Girl (3) Boy (4) Person (5) Lady

Q.18. ‘Table’ is related to ‘Wood’ in the same way as ‘Shoe’ is related to ________
(1) Cobbler (2) Chappal (3) Lace (4) Shop (5) Leather

Q.19. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, write the last letter of that word, if more than one such word can be formed write M and if no such word can be formed write X.
(1) T (2) P (3) S (4) M (5) X

Q.20. If (I) ‘A * B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’ and (II) ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’, which of thefollowing shows ‘P is the father of Q’ ?
(1) Q * M × P (2) P * Q (3) Q * P (4) P × M * Q (5) None

Q.21. In a certain code SENT is written ‘ + ÷ × –’ and ANT is written ‘* × –’. How is TEN wiritten in that code ?
(1) × ÷ + (2) * – + (3) ÷ × – (4) – ÷ × (5) × ÷ –

Q.22. In a row of boys Amar is tenth from one end. There are 20 boys in the row. What is his position from the other end ?
(1) 9th (2) 10th (3) 11th (4) 20th (5) None

Q23.     Statements :    Some cats are tigers. All lions are cats. Some horses are lions. All horses are animals.
    Conclusions :    I. Some lions are tigers. II. No horse is tiger. III. Some horses are cats. IV. Some horses are tigers.
(A) None follows (B) Only III follows (C) Only II and IV follow (D) Only III and either II or IV follow (E) None
Ans : (D)

Q24.     Statements :    Some clocks are radios. No radio is laptop. Some fridges are clocks. Some clocks are laptops.
    Conclusions :    I. Some fridges are laptops. II. No radio is fridge. III. Laptops are either fridges or clocks. IV. No laptop is fridge.
(A) Only II follows (B) Only IV follows (C) Only either I or IV follows (D) Only III follows (E) None
Ans : (C)

Q25.     Statements :    Some notes are coins.  Some papers are plastics. All coins are papers. No note is cardboard.
    Conclusions :    I. Some notes are papers. II. Some coins are plastics. III. No paper is cardboard. IV. No note is plastic.
(A) Only I follows (B) Only I and II follow (C) Only I and III follow (D) All follow (E) None
Ans : (A)

Q26.      Statements :    All stools are desks. No desk is shelf. All shelves are cupboards. Some cupboards are mirrors.
    Conclusions :     I. No mirror is shelf. II. No stool is shelf. III. No cupboard is desk. IV. No mirror is desk.
(A) None follows (B) Only II and III follow (C) Only II follows (D) Only II, III and IV follow (E) None
Ans : (C)


Directions—(Q. 27–36) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow :
A Research Institute is recruiting a libration to digitise its information resources among other duties. Candidates must possess the following criteria. The candidate must :

I. be not less than 35 years and not exceed 40 years as on 01- 11-2009.
II. have a Bachelor’s Degree in Library and Information Science with 65 per cent marks.
III. have a Ph.D. in Library Science.
IV. have post qualification experience of at least 4 years in a University Library.
However if the candidate fulfils the above mentioned criteria except—
(a) at (II) above but the candidates has a UGC NET certification with all the other above criteria fulfilled he/she may be referred to the Dean.
(b) at (IV) above but all the eligibility criteria are met and the candidate has at least one year’s experience in a research institute he/ she may be offered contractual appointment for a year.
Based on the above criteria study carefully whether the following candidates are eligible for the recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All cases are given to you as on 1-11-2009.

Mark answer :
(A) if he/she is to be shortlisted.
(B) if he/she is not to be shortlisted.
(C) if he/she should be referred to the Dean.
(D) if he/she may be offered contractual appointment if required.
(E) if the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.

Q27. Anil Rath has a doctorate in Library Science from Karnataka University in 2003. Born on July 21, 1969, he graduated in Library and Information Science from Karnataka University where he was Assistant Librarian for four years since 2005.
Ans : (B)

Q28. Dr. Samir Bali has a Ph.D. in Library Science and has been with the Institute of Fundamental Research as Assistant Librarian since October 2008. He graduated with a degree in Library and Information Science in 1994 at the age of 22. He obtained 70 per cent in his graduation.
Ans : (D)

Q29. Vaishali Shetty has a librarian at STS University since 2007 when she qualified in the UGC NET examination. She has a degree in Library and Information Science with 60 per cent. Her first job was as junior librarian at TRP Institute of Development Research from October 2000 to December 2001.
Ans : (B)

Q30. Vivek Jha has a Ph.D. in Library and Information Science. He graduated in Library and Information Science in 1992 with 65 per cent. He was born on 1-10- 1974. Since July 2005, he has been working as Deputy Librarian at a deemed University.
Ans : (A)

Q31. A graduate in Library Science with 69 per cent Dr. M. Puri has been working at Ranchi University for 4 years as Deputy Librarian. She earned her doctorate while working for the Labour Research Institute for 5 years as Assistant Librarian. She is 38 years old as on the required date.
Ans : (A)

Q32. Megha Vaidya has a graduate degree in Library Science from Punjab University where she has been a librarian for the past 5 years. In 2002 she obtained her UGC NET qualification at the age of 29. She obtained 72 per cent graduation.
Ans : (E)

Q33. Anup Gupta is obtaining his Ph.D. from YCM University where he has been Junior Librarian since 2004. He qualified in the UGC NET exam. in June, 2000. He has a degree in Library and Information Science with 62 per cent. His date of birth is 17-10-1973.
Ans : (B)

Q34. Kirti Shukla obtained her doctorate and Bachelor’s degree from Patna University. She obtained 63 per cent at graduation. She obtained her UGC NET qualification in 1998 when she was 26.
Ans : (E)

Q35. Prakash Sinha has been a librarian for a government institution for three years. Prior to this he was a University Librarian for 7 years after completing his Ph.D. in Library Science. He graduated in 1991 with 68 per cent in Library Science. He is exactly 40 years of age on the specified date.
Ans : (A)

Q36. Rohan Sachdev obtained his UGC NET qualification after his graduation in 1998 when he began working. He has been Assistant Librarian for the past two years with a research instiute. He obtained 65 per cent in his graduation in Library Science. He earned his Ph.D. in Library Science in 2007. His date of birth is 22-10-1974.
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 37–40) In each of the following questions, three words are given. They are followed by four words, one of which stands for the class to which these three words belong. Identify that word.

37. Wheat, Barley, Rice
(A) Food (B) Gram (C) Cereal (D) Agriculture
Ans : (C)

38. Coal, Iron, Mica
(A) Rock (B) Minerals  (C) Gold (D) Earth
Ans : (B)

39. Honesty, Credibility, Reliability
(A) Quality (B) Dependability (C) Charter (D) Nicety
Ans : (A)
40. Cap, Coat, Trousers
(A) Smart (B) Shirt  (C) Dress (D) Tailor
Ans : (C)


Directions—(Q. 41–50) For each of the following questions, there are two words and five alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are two words. Then find out the alternative whose two words have the same relation as in the two words given in question.

41. Resignation : Office ::
(A) Competition : Game (B) Illness : Hospital (C) Abdication : Throne (D) Moisture : Rain (E) Appointment : Interview
Ans : (C)

42. Bunch : Key ::
(A) Hound : Pack (B) Team : Competition (C) Beehive : Bee (D) Examination : Subject  (E) Bouquet : Flower
Ans : (E)

43. Profit : Loss ::
(A) Success : Failure (B) Rupee : Paisa (C) Whole : Part (D) Multiplication : Addition (E) Adult : Child
Ans : (A)

44. Sapling : Tree ::
(A) Horse : Mare (B) Student: Teacher  (C) Bud : Flower (D) Tree : Furniture (E) River : Brook
Ans : (C)

45. Supervisor : Worker ::
(A) Junior : Senior  (B) Superior : Inferior  (C) Elder : Younger  (D) Debtor : Creditor  (E) Officer : Clerk
Ans : (E)

46. Malaria : Mosquito ::
(A) Poison : Death (B) Rat : Plague (C) Epidemic : Bacteria (D) Cholera : Water (E) Medicine : Disease
Ans : (D)

47. Paisa : Rupee ::
(A) Kilogram : Quintal (B) Metre : Centimetre (C) Coin : Money (D) Weight : Ton (E) Rupee : Wealth
Ans : (A)

48. Poet : Verse ::
(A) Prose : Novelist (B) Author : Book (C) Novel : Prose (D) Publication : Editor (E) Summary : Paraphrase
Ans : (B)

49. Water : Thirst ::
(A) Food : Hunger  (B) Sun : Energy  (C) Appetite : Meal  ( D) Ice-cream : Cold  (E) Poison : Death
Ans : (A)

50. Pulp : Paper ::
(A) Wood : Table (B) Cloth : Shirt  (C) Yarn : Fabric (D) Iron : Steel (E) Wood : Sawdust
Ans : (C

Monday, 28 May 2012

SSC CGL (Combined Graduate Level)Reasoning Sample Practice Paper – 23


Dear Student you can go to VIGYAAPANs appearing on this page- to help us....





1. If B and G serve on the Games Committee, which of the following must serve on the Food Service Committee ?
(A) A, (B) D, (C) E, (D) F
Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following groups could constitute the Games Committee ?
(A) A, B, E, (B) A, D, G, (C) C, H, E, (D) F, I, B
Ans : (D)

3. If A is assigned to the Food Service Committee and C is appointed to Entertainment Committee, then which must be true ?
1. G is appointed to the Food Service Committee. 2. E is appointed to the Games Committee.
3. I is appointed to the Entertainment Committee.
(A) I only (B) III only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only
Ans : (A)


4. If F serves on the Food Service Committee and C serves on the same committee as H, then which of the following must serve on the Games Committee ?
1. A, 2. G , 3. I
(A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II only (D) II and III only
Ans : (C)

5. If I is on the Entertainment Committee and B is on the Food Service Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
(A) F is on the Entertainment Committee (B) C is on the Games Committee
(C) G is on the Food Service Committee (D) F is on the Games Committee
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) Letters of certain words have been rearranged and the jumbled spellings have been given below. Out of the choices given below each question, choose the last letter of the correct word—
6. AYDOT: (A) A (B) D (C) T (D) Y
Ans : (D)

7. ILCEOP: (A) C (B) E (C) L (D) O
Ans : (B)

8. CAPCET: (A) A (B) C (C) P (D) T
Ans : (D)

9. VISERL: (A) E (B) L (C) R (D) S
Ans : (C)

10. ERVSECI: (A) E (B) I (C) R (D) S
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Find the correct answer out of the four alternatives given below question and mark your answer.
11. Ice : Coolness : : Earth : ?
(A) Forest (B) Weight (C) Gravitation (D) Ocean
Ans : (C)

12. Coconut : Shell : : Letter : ?
(A) Mail (B) Letter-box (C) Stamp (D) Envelope
Ans : (D)

13. Income is related to profit in the same way as expenditure is related to—
(A) Loss, (B) Surplus, (C) Balance, (D) Sale
Ans : (A)

14. Much is related to many in the same way as measure is related to—
(A) Calculate, (B) Count, (C) Weigh, (D) Measurement
Ans : (B)

15. Clue is related to Mystery in the same way as warning is related to—
(A) Precaution, (B) Disaster, (C) Risk, (D) Danger
Ans : (D)

16. Find the oddman out—
(A) MondAy, (B) tUESdAy, (C) WedNESdAy, (D) thUrSdAy
Ans : (B)

17. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) CUSTOMER : SGPSYYBK, (B) INTEREST : UUHVJYUQ, (C) OVERSEAS : TCHWWKCW, (D) BANKING : HPLOSGI
Ans : (B)

18. Three of the following four have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?
(A) PROFIT : RPQCKR, (B) OTHERS : QRJCTQ, (C) LEGUME : NCISOC, (D) CANKER : EYPIGP
Ans : (A)

19. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
(A) GWOURV, (B) LZKMSU, (C) JOEHNP, (D) SFXPMG
Ans : (D)

20. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
(A) IW, (B) MS, (C) FT, (D) JU
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Find out the missing term in the following letternumber series—
21. H 4 W, I 18 V, K 48 T, N 100 Q, ???, W 294 H
(A) P 1485 S, (B) R 180 M, (C) S 198 I, (D) T 206 K
Ans : (B)

22. 1 ED, 2 FD, 3 KH, ???, 15 KG, 48 KF
(A) 12 PX, (B) 6 RI, (C) 9 LV, (D) 8 TQ
Ans : (B)

23. M 4, T 7, P 7, Q 10, S 10, N 13, ??, K 16
(A) V 4, (B) K 7, (C) T 13, (D) G 15
Ans : (C)

24. R 5 P, T 6 M, V 9 J, X 15 G, ???
(A) A 12 L, (B) I 18 X, (C) Z 25 D, (D) U 20 Q
Ans : (C)

25. DGK 0, GKP 3, ????, PVC 15
(A) GKV 5, (B) KPV 8, (C) PVZ 9, (D) KPU 11
Ans : (B)

26. If the first 6 letters of the English Alphabet series are written in reversed order, then the next 6 letters are written in reversed order and so on, and at the end Y is interchanged by Z, then which letter is fourth letter to the right of 13th letter from the left ?
(A) M, (B) N, (C) Q, (D) P
Ans : (B)

27. If the English Alphabet series is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting from Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the Alphabet series ?
(A) L, (B) O, (C) M, (D) N
Ans : (D)

28. If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order and then the groups of letters so formed are rearranged as in a dictionary, which letter group would have its group of letters in the MIDDLE among the five letter-groups ?
MEET, DEAF, ROAD, CODE, LACK
(A) LACK, (B) MEET, (C) ROAD, (D) DEAF
Ans : (C)

29. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) HKNGSW, (B) EIMQVZ, (C) SUXADF, (D) RVZDHL,
Ans : (D)

30. Select the series in which the letters skipped in between adjacent letters do not decrease in order—
(A) MGVFK, (B) PJXHM, (C) EQZFI, (D) GWIQU
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) These questions are based on code language which utilizes letters in the English Alphabet. In each question, there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter underlined. For each letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B), (C), or (D), not in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The letter of the that code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may be coded differently.
31. D U E L : (A) g, (B) i, (C) p, (D) j
Ans : (C)

32. P I T Y : (A) g, (B) b, (C) r, (D) k
Ans : (B)

33. R I N G: (A) it, (B) rk, (C) mp, (D) ti
Ans : (A)

34. G O A L: (A) c, (B) q, (C) e, (D) j
Ans : (C)

35. S L A P: (A) dx, (B) ms, (C) vp, (D) io
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Study the following arrangements carefully and answer the questions given below—
Series I. MNLqd fuw2UFOKP6hs (14) SHV 7gc8RIE(13)xtk
Series II. azj14GJBopir5v9TQY(10) emn(11) DACby(12)xWZ

36. How many capital letters are in Series I and in Series II each of which is either followed by or preceded by the same positioned capital letter of English alphabet from the other end ?
(A) 4, 3, (B) 6, 2, (C) 8, 1, (D) 10, 0
Ans : (A)

37. If the positions of the first twelve elements of Series I are reversed, and similarly the positions of the last twelve elements of Series II are reversed, then the third element to the right of the seventh element from the left end of Series I will be ……, whereas the third element to the left of the seventh element from the right end of Series II will be ……
(A) L, x, (B) j, x, (C) U, (11), (D) x, L
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following pairs of elements shows the elements of Series I and Series II respectively, which are exactly in the middle of the seventh element from the left end and the sixth element from the right end in Series I and II ?
(A) hy, (B) Hy, (C) sQ, (D) Sq
Ans : (C)

39. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above series. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) azj (B) emb (C) qdf (D) xtk
Ans : (B)

40. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangements, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit and immediately followed by a
consonant ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41– 44) In the following coded arithmetic equations certain symbols are used with the following meaning—
I. P @ Q means add P to Q; II. P & Q means subtract Q from P;
III. P # Q means multiply P with Q; and IV. P $ Q means divide P by Q.


Now study the given information and answer the question following it—

Three persons A, B and C complete a work in 20 days. B and C together are 4/3 times as efficient as A and B together. On the other hand A and C together are 5/4 times as efficient as B and C together.
41. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A alone can finish the same work ?
(A) 24 # 20 $ (24 & 20) (B) 30 # 20 & (30 @ 20) (C) 30 # 20 $ (30 & 20) (D) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
Ans : (C)

42. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which B and C together can finish the same work ?
(A) 24 # (3 @ 3) $ 4 (B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3 (C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5 (D) 30 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and B working together can finish the same work ?
(A) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4 (B) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20) (C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5 (D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
Ans : (B)

44. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and C working together can finish the same work ?
(A) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20) (B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5 (C) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4 (D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
Ans : (B)

45. A travel towards East. B travels towards North. C and D travel in opposite directions. D travels towards right of A. Which of the following is definitely true ?
(A) B and C travel in opposite directions (B) C travels towards West (C) D travels towards North (D) B and C travel in the same direction
Ans : (D)

46. A cow runs 20 metres towards East and turns to right, runs 10 metres and turns to right, runs 9 metres and again turns to left, runs 5 metres
and then turns to left, runs 12 metres and finally turns to left and runs 6 metres. Now which direction is the cow facing ?
(A) North (B) East (C) South (D) West
Ans : (A)

47. A boy started walking positioning his back towards the sun. After sometimes, he turned left, then turned right and then towards the left
again. In which direction is he going now ?
(A) East or West (B) North or West (C) South or West (D) North or South
Ans : (D)

48. If Thursday was the day after the day before yesterday five days ago, what is the least number of days ago when Sunday was three days before the day after tomorrow ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Ans : (D)

49. In a row of boys facing North, a boy is thirteen from the left. When shifted to his right by three places, he becomes seventeenth from right
end of the row. How many boys are there in the row ?
(A) 32 (B) 31 (C) 33 (D) 30
Ans : (A)

50. 136 vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car there is one scooter. After the second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on. Work out the number of scooters in the second half of the row—
(A) 61 (B) 62 (C) 63 (D) 64
Ans : (C)